question archive How would you respond to the question posed by Professor Munoz: why shouldn't the wise rule because of their wisdom? Or why shouldn't the religious rule because of their piety? Professor Zuckert explains that popular sovereignty means the purposes of government should be the purposes of the people, and not the purposes of the rulers
How would you respond to the question posed by Professor Munoz: why shouldn't the wise rule because of their wisdom? Or why shouldn't the religious rule because of their piety? Professor Zuckert explains that popular sovereignty means the purposes of government should be the purposes of the people, and not the purposes of the rulers
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How would you respond to the question posed by Professor Munoz: why shouldn't the wise rule because of their wisdom? Or why shouldn't the religious rule because of their piety?
Professor Zuckert explains that popular sovereignty means the purposes of government should be the purposes of the people, and not the purposes of the rulers. He notes that this theory is not always achieved in practice. Do you agree? Why or why not?
?How do limited government, representative government, separation of powers, checks and balances, and federalism all serve to support the principle of consent of the governed?
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Answer:
Just because a person is wise does not mean their wisdom will translate into leadership ability. A pious person also might be devout, but that has nothing to do with ruling ability.
Yes. The people give the government legitimacy and authority to rule over them. They give them the power, and the government SHOULD put the people it rules first above all. This is rarely achieved, as human self-interest always interferes and governments tend to gain more power than they should have, which turns into oppression.
All of these aspects of government keep the government in check, and give the people a way to keep the government accountable for its actions. These aspects of a democracy were designed for this purpose, specifically the US government.
