1) A project risk has a 30% chance of occurring

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1) A project risk has a 30% chance of occurring. If it does occur, it will change the project budget by 10%. What is the risk score?

a:0.33333

b:0.03

c:0.1

d:0.4

 

2)Which EVM metric represents the value of all planned work together?

 

a:Budget at Completion (BAC)

b:Planned Value (PV)

c:Estimate to Complete (ETC)

d:Cost Performance Index (CPI)

 

3) Which type of schedule adjustment can be used to shorten a project's duration by adding resources to help complete important project activities?

a:crashing

b:fast tracking

c:milestone development

d:critical path analysis

 

4) Normal time - Shortest time = ________

a:Crashing costs

b:Maximum possible time saving

c:Cost with maximum crashing

d:Fast tracking

 

5)A ________ is a basic bar chart that represents how frequently certain things occur.

a:control chart

b:flowchart

c:histogram

d:scatter diagram

 

6) Configuration ________ documents and stores information about the product, including any changes.

a:identification

b:status accounting

c:verification and auditing

d: defect management

 

7) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an efficient change control process?

a :It considers all change requests but only accepts those that it has the resources to implement comfortably.

b :It explains why a project's results may differ from initial expectations.

c :It ensures that everyone on the project understands why decisions were made.

d: It eliminates frustration for team members.

 

8) Which of the following documents is quintessential to monitoring and controlling project activities?

 

a:risk management plan

b:change management plan

c:project management plan

d:quality management plan

 

9) What should the project manager do if a risk may cause the project to finish ahead of schedule?

a: mitigate the threat

b: avoid the risk

c: enhance the opportunity

d: transfer the risk to another group or organization

 

10) Which of the following statements describing scope creep is false?

a:Minor changes in scope can have dramatic effects on other areas of the project.

b:Poor scope management can seriously injure team morale and irreparably damage the project.

c: Variance analysis is an effective way to manage scope creep.

d: Scope creep is when a specific feature of a project grows outside of its original scope.

 

11) Naveen says that quality assurance (QA) uncovers defects in a product so that they can be fixed. Allison says that QA prevents defects from occurring in the first place. Who is correct?

a:Naveen is correct

b: Allison is correct

c: Naveen and Allison are both correct

d: Naveen and Allison are both incorrect

 

12) PV = $9000, EV = $7000, and AC = $6000. What is the schedule variance?

 

a-$1000

b-$2000

c~77.7%d

d~116.7%

 

13) The change management plan sets the boundaries for the change control process by dictating what?

a: who owns the change control process

b: who has the authority to accept or reject changes

c: who is involved in the change control process

d: all of the above

 

14) Some quality management plans include ________, which facilitates process changes to promote the delivery of quality results.

a: a process improvement plan

b: a work breakdown structure

c: the project charter

d: kaizen

 

15) When an iteration of the product backlog is completed, the probability of risks occurring in that iteration will be what?

a: high

b: moderate

c: low

d: zero

 

16) ________ occur in 3-4-hour sessions and are used by adaptive teams to evaluate their operations through systematic continuous improvement and lessons learned.

a: Sprint reviews

b: Sprint retrospective meetings

c: The Five Whys

d: Configuration verification and auditing processes

 

17) How does the project team measure project progress?

a: by comparing the work produced to the project baselines

b: by using the work breakdown structure to check performance

c: by reviewing the project's risk register

d: all of the above

 

 

18) Quantitative risk analysis ________.

a: predicts project outcomes based on combined risk effects

b: is used to update the risk register with new risks

c: offers descriptions of individual risks

d: prioritizes individual risks for additional analysis

 

19) Which of the following is typically not performed during the Monitoring and Controlling stage?

a: earned value management

b: project scope control

c: team development

d: quality assurance

 

20) A positive risk is likely to occur and will have a strong positive impact on the project. This opportunity should be considered what?

a: high risk

b: moderate risk

c: low risk

d: not a risk