question archive Assuming that Apple’s iOS products are different enough from Android products that Apple can be considered to have a monopoly in the market for iPhones rather than to be a participant in a monopolistically competitive smartphone market: Give a detailed explanation of the logic behind a Turkish tariff to be levied specifically on iPhoness How could Turkey gain from such a tariff? Suppose instead that differences in consumer preferences (or regulation) made the iPhone very different from Android phones in the USA – and hence a monopoly there – but just a substitute for Samsung, Huawei, etc… in Europe and Turkey – where the market was monopolistically competitive
Subject:AccountingPrice: Bought3