question archive 1) A 16-year old female patient presents with an edematous ankle

1) A 16-year old female patient presents with an edematous ankle

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1) A 16-year old female patient presents with an edematous ankle. Your examination reveals a pinpoint wound at the lateral aspect of the ankle and X-rays show a distal fibular fracture. In addition to managing the fracture,

which intervention is most appropriate?

  1. administer tetanus prophylaxis and submit wound scraping for culture
  2. irrigate the wound and apply topical antibiotic
  3. administer tetanus prophylaxis and prescribe oral antibiotics
  4. apply topical antibiotic and cover the wound with a sterile dressing

2. An obese, 58-year old male presents with mild fatigue over the past month. The nurse practitioner takes a history, performs a physical examination, and orders fasting laboratory work. Hct = 49%, TSH = 3.2, glucose = 128 mg/dL, and cholesterol = 289 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. hypothyroidism
  2. anemia
  3. depression
  4. type 2 diabetes mellitus

 

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Answers:

A.) 3. administer tetanus prophylaxis and prescribe oral antibiotics

Human tetanus immune globulin must be administered intramuscularly within the first 24 hours followed by debridement and oral or IV metronidazole.

B.) 4. type 2 diabetes mellitus

126 mg/dL fasting blood glucose is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus.

Sources:

  1. Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2020.
  2. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 20th Edition.